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Re: OT: Diacricital marks [Re: Question about "do"]

From:John Cowan <jcowan@...>
Date:Tuesday, July 29, 2003, 17:52
Mark J. Reed scripsit:

> > Well, no. We're talking about writing here, and the Romance languages > > were already pretty differentiated before anybody thought to write them > > down. > > That seems odd to me, since Latin already had a written form long before > the differentiation? Or did people simply not equate writing and speech?
For a long time literate people spoke their local vernacular and wrote Latin as well as they could. Only in very special cases did they attempt to write the vernacular as well. -- De plichten van een docent zijn divers, John Cowan die van het gehoor ook. jcowan@reutershealth.com --Edsger Dijkstra http://www.ccil.org/~cowan

Replies

Joe <joe@...>
Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>