Re: Conlangs in History

"Thomas R. Wier" wrote:
> Not so bad, if you assume that it removes other number distinctions with it.
Well, that doesn't seem probable, as, for example, the Gaians used a
dialect that involved "fractional numbers", I guess you could call
them.  The Gaians possessed a kind of group mind, so they had to use
forms like "I/we" and "she/Gaia", so it's clear that number distinctions
existed in at least 1st person, and probably 3rd person.  Also, number
presumably exists in nouns, as there are things along the lines of
"Ships?  Not just one ship?", where a person was surprised to hear a
plural form used.

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