Re: Non-constructed religions
From: | Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, November 10, 1998, 1:33 |
On Mon, 9 Nov 1998 19:54:13 -0500 Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> writes:
>Steg Belsky wrote:
>> But it can't be causative....the causative paradigm in the present
>tense
>> begins with a *mem*...mashpil, moshiv, molikh, mazkir, mag`il.....
>(to
>> lower, to bring back, to guide, to remind, to disgust).
>>
>> The root of "to be" in Hebrew is HYH. It's conjugation as a
>causative
>> singular male present-tense verb (a.k.a. noun) would most probably
>be (if
>> there was such a thing in modern hebrew) *mahaveh.
>Could it have been an archaic form, then? I'd read that Yahweh was
>some
>sort of causative form. I know that Yahweh is pretty definite as the
>proper pronunciation.
Maybe, but it would have to be very archaic, farther back than Biblical
Hebrew. Also, btw, in some Sephardic prayerbooks that i've seen, each
place where YHVH is used it has various different vowels inserted for
it...it's usually the common "ado nai" vowels (which is where the word
Jehovah comes from), but others have various Kabbalistic combinations. I
think it's either in the Shmoneh-`Esrei or Ashrei, but there's a place
where each occurance of YHVH uses a different vowel, giving forms like yi
hi vi hi and yu hu vu hu. They aren't pronounced like that, of course,
but that's how they're written.
-Stephen (Steg)
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