| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Saturday, January 10, 2004, 23:00 |
Did <h> become silent in Late Latin before it splintered into the Romance languages, or did that development happen independently in them later? I know that it's silent (apart from its use in digraphs) in modern French, Spanish, and Italian, and I think in Portuguese . . . -Mark
| Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...> | |
| Jan van Steenbergen <ijzeren_jan@...> |