Re: Latin <h>
| From: | Doug Dee <amateurlinguist@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, January 11, 2004, 0:00 |
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In a message dated 1/10/2004 6:00:45 PM Eastern Standard Time,
markjreed@MAIL.COM writes:
>Did <h> become silent in Late Latin before it splintered into the
>Romance languages, or did that development happen independently in
>them later? I know that it's silent (apart from its use in digraphs)
>in modern French, Spanish, and Italian, and I think in Portuguese . . .
According to _Vulgar Latin_ by Jozsef Herman (Translated by Roger Wright),
the loss of the Latin /h/ phoneme "happened in the Republican period, that is,
even before the Empire".
Doug
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