Re: Latin <h>
From: | John Cowan <cowan@...> |
Date: | Sunday, January 11, 2004, 5:55 |
Christophe Grandsire scripsit:
> French is maybe the only language to have such a
> "negative phoneme", i.e. something which is unpronounced but does
> influence pronunciation :) ).
It's all in the representation. Suppose Welsh had an etymologizing
spelling like French, instead of its phonetic one. Then it might
write _ci_ /ki/ 'dog', _tris ci_ /trixi/ 'three dogs' instead of
the actual spelling _tri chi_. (The derivation is [triski] > [trihki] >
[trixi].) In that case, the final -s would look like a negative
phoneme too.
--
John Cowan jcowan@reutershealth.com
http://www.ccil.org/~cowan http://www.reutershealth.com
Thor Heyerdahl recounts his attempt to prove Rudyard Kipling's theory
that the mongoose first came to India on a raft from Polynesia.
--blurb for _Rikki-Kon-Tiki-Tavi_