Re: new Klingon spelling
From: | Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> |
Date: | Monday, January 5, 2004, 22:31 |
On Sunday, January 4, 2004, at 03:18 PM, Mark J. Reed wrote:
> On Sat, Jan 03, 2004 at 07:00:33PM -0500, John Cowan wrote:
>> I was debating a hawk a few months back on this very subject: he
>> claimed
>> that the pron. [ajr&k] was a deliberate insult/dehumanization, like
>> "Jap" in WWII. This is some evidence against that.
>
> Do you really *need* any evidence against that? It's just how many
> pronounce the name in English. Is it also an insult/dehumanization
> that
> we say ['Izrejl=] (and other variants) instead of [jeSrAel] for the
> name of a certain other country in that region?
> -Mark
I'm actually worse than that :-P My English pronunciation is ['IzriL=]
(which i thought was common, but i've been finding out lately is
actually pretty idiosyncratic), even though i know quite well that they
call themselves [jisRa'el].
-Stephen (Steg)
"bleah."
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