Re: USAGE: [a] vs [A]
From: | Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...> |
Date: | Saturday, June 14, 2003, 19:18 |
En réponse à Christian Thalmann :
>Well, French and Italian both have a very clear [a] as their
>sole A sound. French used to have an [A] too, but lost it
>about a century ago.
Wow! Are you trying to make me look older than I am?! The /a/ vs. /A/
opposition was still in existence when I was a child!! It disappeared
during my childhood, and I can clearly remember a time when everyone still
used it. So "one century ago" is a bit much. Make it 20 years ago and
you'll be closer to the truth. And note that I have never lived in an area
especially archaic linguistically. Rather the contrary.
>Personally, I have no problem with [a] vs [A], since my Swiss
>German idiolect distinguishes them as separate phonemes.
Me neither, since I used to use them during my childhood. I may mix them a
bit when I try to pronounce them, but I don't have a problem distinguishing
them.
Christophe Grandsire.
http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr
You need a straight mind to invent a twisted conlang.