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Re: Latin loans in Welsh

From:Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Sunday, June 10, 2001, 11:49
At 12:25 pm +0000 9/6/01, kam@CARROT.CLARA.NET wrote:
[snip]
> >Just to summarise, mainly in response to Ray's post, here's what happened >to the Latin vowels in Welsh (secondary developments in brackets) ignoring >various special cases : > >Short vowels : > >i >> I, (e) >e >> e, (I) >a >> a, (ei, ai, e) >o >> o, (ei, ai, y) >u >> u <w>, (o, I) > >(In W. /I/ is a centralised [I] or [@], it merged with /e/ in Breton)
I take it [I] is SAMPA's [1], i.e. modern, north-Walian _u_ in _punt_.
>Long vowels > >i: >> i >e: (borrowed as [ej]) >> u:j <wy> (Breton <oua, oue> etc. >a: >> aw, o (Breton eu,e) >o: (borrowed as [ow] >> [oy] >> [y] <u> >u: as /o:/ above. > >(In Modern W. /y/ <u> has become unrounded and centralised and has >merged with /I/ but is still distinguished in writing) > >Rarely Latin /o:/ gave W. /aw/ > >All these developments are the same as for the native sounds.
Quite - which is what I would expect with Latin (or any other language) words which become assimilated in ancient British; the same happened to Norman French words in English - once they become part of the language, they are then subject to all subsequent developments just like native words. All it tells us is the probable pronunciation of Vulgar Latin in Britain at the time when these words were taken into ancient British. But Brithenig is derived from the spoken Vulgar Latin of the already Latinized urban areas which, unlike *here*, continued to function *there* in the parts of Britain that Saxons did not occupy *there*. [snip]
> >The point being that WCB all replace the British/Latin quantity >distinctions by quality distinctions, but I think, in rather a different >way from Vulgar Latin.
But there was not one consistent system in Vulgar Latin either. Western Romance shows, basically (note phonemes, not phones): Latin /i:/ /i/ /e:/ /e/ /a:/ /a/ /o/ /o:/ /u/ /u:/ Early VL /i/ /I/ /e/ /E/ /a/ /O/ /o/ /U/ /u/ \ / \ / \ / \ / Late VL /i/ /e/ /E/ /a/ /O/ /o/ /u/ But this wasn't universal - both Sardinian & Dalmatian Romance show different treatments. In any case, maintained itself like this only in stressed syllables; unstressed show further simplifications. Indeed, to deal with the development of VL vowels in Old northen French, we have to consider at least all 12 the different cases below: STRESSED BLOCKED UNBLOCKED UNSTRESSED (a) Independent 1a 2a 3a (b) after a palatal 1b 2b 3b (c) before /j/ 1c 2c 3c (d) before a nasal 1d 2d 3d The Brittonic borrowings obviously occurred early on, but Brithenig must have developed from the latest stage of VL spoken in Britain, and if there continued to be trade and interchange with Gaul & the rest of the Empire - as long as it lasted - the language would've been affected by later changes. Short of time travel, I don't think we can be sure how Latin was pronounced on the streets of Londinium, Venta Belgarum or Venta Silurum on the eve of the Saxon incursions. We just have make intelligent guesses and accept certain assumptions if we are going to compile a fantasy language like Brithenig. One telling point, it seems to me, is that only in north Gaul do we find ublocked, stressed /e/ and /o/ diphthongizing, i.e. /e/ >> /ei/ >> /Ei/ >> /Oi/ (e.g. habere >> aveir >> avoir) /o/ >> /ou/ >> /Ou/ >> /9u/ (e.g. nepote(m) >> neveu) This seems to me remarkably similar to:
>e: (borrowed as [ej]) >> u:j <wy> (Breton <oua, oue> etc.
.....
>o: (borrowed as [ow] >> [oy] >> [y] <u>
So. also, is the shift of Latin /u/ to [y], which has often been cited as an example of Gallic (i.e. Gaulish) influence. ..and the treatment of -ct- is similar, cf. Vulgar Latin: lacte >> Old French: lait /laIT/ ( >> mod. French /le/) Welsh: llaeth Cornish: leth /le:T/ (Unified) Breton: lêz _or_ laez
>The reflexes of long and short vowels on the >whole stay separate, only W. /o/ could come from either /a:/ or /o/.
As we might expect if the borrowings were early. The only odd thing would be if it is clearly shown that Classical Latin /a/ and /a:/ distinction was maintained. In the examples shown so far, as far as I noticed, the change of /a(:)/ >> /aw/ occurs when /a/ would've received stress in Vulgar Latin, which is what I'd expect. But, as I've said above, Brithenig is not derived from the Latin of first or second generation Britons, but from the Vulgar Latin of the thoroughly Latinized urban population of the late empire. It's only if a substantial part of that population maintained itself that a British Romancelang could've survived and, indeed, would've almost certainly have supplanted the earlier Brittonic speech. As Andrew observed - rightly IMHO - early on, if British Romance survived, i.e. Brithenig really existed here, then there'd be no Welsh (or Cornish or Breton) since Brittonic would've certainly have gone the way of Gallic in Gaul. In such a world, we'd have to look to later Vulgar Latin and I think Andrew was not unreasonable in looking at what happened in northern Gaul. Ray. ========================================= A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language. [J.G. Hamann 1760] =========================================