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Perfect aspect

From:Keith Gaughan <kmgaughan@...>
Date:Thursday, September 30, 2004, 9:46
Ray Brown wrote:

> On Monday, September 27, 2004, at 11:04 , Keith Gaughan wrote: > >> Joe wrote: >> >>> Keith Gaughan wrote: > > [snip] > >>>> The meaning comes from the use of the phrase 'tar eis' (these days >>>> written by some as 'tareis', but that looks terrible and Irish is >>>> rarely >>>> their first language when they do), meaning... no, guess! Yup, 'after'. >>>> The Hiberno-English usage is identical to the one in Gaelic, all forms. >>> >>> >>> Welsh, too. 'Rydw i wedi gwneud' - 'I have done' - 'Am I after doing'. >> >> All down to a lack of a direct equivalent to 'to have'. > > But why should you use the verb "to have" to express the perfect aspect? > What, for example, does 'he' actually possess in "He has gone"? What is a > "gone"?
You're right, and that's just me letting my anglophonic bias butt in. <smack!> Correction noted. It tends to happen when you need to spend all your time speaking the language. K. -- Keith Gaughan -- The man who removes a mountain begins by carrying away small stones... make place for some really big nukes!


Peter Bleackley <peter.bleackley@...>