|From:||Keith Gaughan <kmgaughan@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, September 30, 2004, 9:46|
Ray Brown wrote:
> On Monday, September 27, 2004, at 11:04 , Keith Gaughan wrote:
>> Joe wrote:
>>> Keith Gaughan wrote:
>>>> The meaning comes from the use of the phrase 'tar eis' (these days
>>>> written by some as 'tareis', but that looks terrible and Irish is
>>>> their first language when they do), meaning... no, guess! Yup, 'after'.
>>>> The Hiberno-English usage is identical to the one in Gaelic, all forms.
>>> Welsh, too. 'Rydw i wedi gwneud' - 'I have done' - 'Am I after doing'.
>> All down to a lack of a direct equivalent to 'to have'.
> But why should you use the verb "to have" to express the perfect aspect?
> What, for example, does 'he' actually possess in "He has gone"? What is a
You're right, and that's just me letting my anglophonic bias butt in.
<smack!> Correction noted. It tends to happen when you need to spend all
your time speaking the language.
Keith Gaughan -- talideon.com
The man who removes a mountain begins
by carrying away small stones...
...to make place for some really big nukes!