| From: | Peter Bleackley <peter.bleackley@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Thursday, September 30, 2004, 10:03 |
Staving Keith Gaughan:>>But why should you use the verb "to have" to express the perfect aspect? >>What, for example, does 'he' actually possess in "He has gone"? What is a >>"gone"? > >You're right, and that's just me letting my anglophonic bias butt in. ><smack!> Correction noted. It tends to happen when you need to spend all >your time speaking the language.Actually, this is an interesting question. Exactly how and why did "have" get the sense of "auxiliary verb for perfect aspects"? Pete
| Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> |