Re: Alienability in Possession
| From: | Rob Haden <magwich78@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, May 5, 2005, 3:57 |
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On Wed, 4 May 2005 23:55:03 -0400, Rob Haden <magwich78@...> wrote:
>Question: if a language differentiates between alienable and inalienable
>possession, which type is more likely to be marked with possessive
>suffixes? I think it'd be inalienable, but I could be wrong.
Are there any languages where 1) a distinction is made between these two
types, and 2) one's living relatives use inalienable but one's dead
relatives use alienable?
- Rob
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