Re: Alienability in Possession
| From: | Doug Bigham <tlhovwi@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, May 5, 2005, 4:57 |
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I'd go with the alienable possessions being marked. (hi! I'm new! Here's my
jumping-right-in!). That is, if possessions are *inalienable* then they begin
to be come less like possessions and more like "extensions of the self".
Actually, that might be the way to pursue this... find out how languages
distinguish between body parts and artefacts of possession.
-doug
Rob Haden <magwich78@...> wrote:
Question: if a language differentiates between alienable and inalienable
possession, which type is more likely to be marked with possessive
suffixes? I think it'd be inalienable, but I could be wrong.
- Rob
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