Re: Word used more than once
From: | Joe <joe@...> |
Date: | Sunday, May 21, 2006, 18:24 |
Andreas Johansson wrote:
>Quoting João Ricardo de Mendonça <somnicorvus@...>:
>
>
>
>>On 5/20/06, Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> wrote:
>>
>>
>>>Probably for the same reason Standard English lost the historic
>>>nominative "ye", preserving the object "you". And, for that reason, why
>>>some dialects use "them" instead of "they" or "me" instead of "I" and so
>>>on. The object form seems to be the one to win out when case is lost in
>>>English pronouns.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>Like Western Romance languages, which take their plural forms from the
>>Latin accusative. So Latin filias (acc.) gave Spanish hijas and
>>Portuguese filhas (no case).
>>
>>
>
>Unless I very much misunderstand, they also got most of their singulars from the
>accusative. Nom. sg. _filius_ ought've given **_hijos_ in Spanish, not _hijo_,
>which rather comes from acc. _filiu(m)_.
>
>
>
Interestingly, in French this is one of the few singular forms that
comes from the nominative: <fils> - [fis], from filius, I think.