Re: Word used more than once
From: | Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> |
Date: | Saturday, May 20, 2006, 20:58 |
Quoting João Ricardo de Mendonça <somnicorvus@...>:
> On 5/20/06, Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> wrote:
> >
> > Probably for the same reason Standard English lost the historic
> > nominative "ye", preserving the object "you". And, for that reason, why
> > some dialects use "them" instead of "they" or "me" instead of "I" and so
> > on. The object form seems to be the one to win out when case is lost in
> > English pronouns.
> >
>
> Like Western Romance languages, which take their plural forms from the
> Latin accusative. So Latin filias (acc.) gave Spanish hijas and
> Portuguese filhas (no case).
Unless I very much misunderstand, they also got most of their singulars from the
accusative. Nom. sg. _filius_ ought've given **_hijos_ in Spanish, not _hijo_,
which rather comes from acc. _filiu(m)_.
Andreas
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