Re: V2 languages
From: | Carlos Thompson <carlos_thompson@...> |
Date: | Saturday, May 29, 1999, 22:24 |
B.Philip Jonsson skrev:
>
> Matt, while reading this and the other excamples you gave, I was more o=
r
> less unconsciously translating them word-by-word into Swedish, and apar=
t
> from the instances of object-first the word-order felt mostly "right" i=
n
> Swedish.
>
> [Johan] GAV [boken] [till Allis] [ig=E5r eftermiddag]
>
> is completely natural Swedish. It would seem that Swedish is a V2
language
> with a main-clause WO very similar to German (but more comsistently so
than
> German, without that verb-last-in-sub-clause rule that makes all
> non-Germans hate their German-techers...)
>
> Do you agree?
I do agree. Yes, Swedish is a V2 language and I think a better example t=
han
German.
> BTW it never occurred to my conscious mind that Swedish and English was
> different in this respect. Are they really?
In the natlangs I know there is a difference in this point. I can put an=
y
number of objects (adverbs, prepositional phrases, etc.) before the verb =
in
Spanish, and I can put the subject after the verb as longer as agreement
will disambiguish. In English I can only put one object before the verb,
you should avoid direct or indirect object (acusative or dative) but is n=
ot
a must: (John I gave the book), and subject must always be just before ve=
rb.
In Swedish you can also put ONE object before verb, direct and indirect
object should be avoided and verb must be the second position (if there i=
s
an object before the verb, subject must be after the verb).
-- Carlos Th
o_o
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=
=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3D=3Dw=3D=3D=3Dw=3D=3D=3D=3D#######
Chlewey Thompin ## ####
http://www.geocities.com/Paris/Rue/9028/ ## ## ##
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- =BFPor qu=E9 no?
- No tiene sentido.
- =BFQu=E9 sentido? El sentido no existe.
- El sentido inverso. O el sentido norte. El sentido com=FAn, tal ve=
z. O
sin sentido, como aqu=ED.
(-- Graeville 2)