| From: | Patrick Dunn <tb0pwd1@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Wednesday, December 1, 1999, 6:40 |
On Tue, 30 Nov 1999, Nik Taylor wrote:> > I dunno... why does Icelandic have one? Because historically > > it wasn't so strict, that's why. > > True. But why copy that (presumably) transitional stage in a conlang?Verisimilitude. (sp?)