Re: A quick question
From: | Christopher B Wright <faceloran@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, May 1, 2002, 23:54 |
David sekalge
>I'd think, though, that this would be quite odd, considering the
>nominative has an ending normally. I assume that /ark/ must appear
without
>an end vowel for this rule to even be imaginable. Where does that
happen?
Vocative case and in dictionaries, as well as nominative in early
dialects. (The formal vocative isn't used often, except with people's
names and ranks.)
And that would be analogy unless the inflection came to the language
after the sound change.