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Re: A quick question

From:Christopher B Wright <faceloran@...>
Date:Wednesday, May 1, 2002, 23:55
Jesse Bangs sekalge:
>Let's get those orthographies right, people. You mean to say [arxa], I >assume--a *phonetic* value. The underlying *phonemic* value is /arka/
no
>matter what.
NO! I did not make a mistake, and I didn't provide *any* orthography. The letter in question is actually written [c]. And the phonemic value, as I understand it from mulling over Christophe's explanation, is automatically /arxa/ *if* the inflection happened after the sound change.
>So your question depends. Do you want it to be [arxa]? If so you just >rewrite your rule so that /k/ goes to [x] at the end of a morpheme. If >you want [arka], then make /k/ only go to [x] at the end of a word.
NO! Sound changes *only* affect the complete forms of the words. They know no borders or boundaries; if you waved your little morpheme marker in front of a word, the sound change would pay no attention. The only way to accomplish that is through analogy. Now, if the inflections were added after the sound change, the change would automatically affect all forms of the word. If only some were, then it would be considered an irregular word. And if you're providing help, don't be as rude as I was in my first post to the list. I merely wish to remove ignorance from myself. In five years, I'll be providing this help and still accepting help from others. Wright

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JS Bangs <jaspax@...>