Re: A quick question
From: | Christopher B Wright <faceloran@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, May 1, 2002, 23:55 |
Jesse Bangs sekalge:
>Let's get those orthographies right, people. You mean to say [arxa], I
>assume--a *phonetic* value. The underlying *phonemic* value is /arka/
no
>matter what.
NO!
I did not make a mistake, and I didn't provide *any* orthography. The
letter in question is actually written [c]. And the phonemic value, as I
understand it from mulling over Christophe's explanation, is
automatically /arxa/ *if* the inflection happened after the sound change.
>So your question depends. Do you want it to be [arxa]? If so you just
>rewrite your rule so that /k/ goes to [x] at the end of a morpheme. If
>you want [arka], then make /k/ only go to [x] at the end of a word.
NO!
Sound changes *only* affect the complete forms of the words. They know no
borders or boundaries; if you waved your little morpheme marker in front
of a word, the sound change would pay no attention. The only way to
accomplish that is through analogy.
Now, if the inflections were added after the sound change, the change
would automatically affect all forms of the word. If only some were, then
it would be considered an irregular word.
And if you're providing help, don't be as rude as I was in my first post
to the list. I merely wish to remove ignorance from myself. In five
years, I'll be providing this help and still accepting help from others.
Wright
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