Re: OT: Two countries separated by a common language
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Monday, May 19, 2003, 2:10 |
On Sun, May 18, 2003 at 12:44:19PM +1000, Tristan McLeay wrote:
> Well, my [e] is no doubt the equivalent of your [E] for most intents and
> purposes.
Could be. The sound [e] only shows up in my English idiolect as
part of a "long a" diphthong - [e:] or [eI]. Just for reference:
mat [m&t]
mate [meIt], [me:t], or [mejt]
met [mEt]
mite [mAIt]
mitt [mIt]
moot [mut]
mote [moUt]
mutt [mVt]
not [nAt]
put [pUt]
> Americans sound like (to me) they're using [&] as their
> short e or [E] as their short a, but I've never got confused by it.
Hm. I would definitely hear [met] as "mate" rather than "met".
> >On a slightly related note, my wife mocks me because I pronounce
> >"measure" as ["meiZ@`r\]
> If I tried saying [meiZ@], people would tell me it's not pronounced with
> a long 'e' :) (Long a is [&i], long e is somewhere on the continuum
> [ij]~[Ii]~[@\i]~[@i] and so when in the context of an Australian accent
> [ei] sound most like [@\i].
Oh, dear. However do you communicate with non-Aussies? :) But as you
said, at least you do seem to be on the way to undoing part of the Great
Vowel Shift. :)
-Mark