Re: French <chez>
| From: | Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, February 1, 2004, 23:24 |
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At 21:00 26.1.2004, Ray Brown wrote:
>Yes, but definitely not from the ablative, as suggested. That case
>disappeared
>early on from spoken Latin; grafffiti make this quite clear (and there is
>other
>evidence).
What happened to those prepositions that used to
govern the ablative. Didn't the ablative singular
become homophonous with the accusative in most words
once the accusative -m was lost? Still the ablative
plural would still be homophonous to the dative and
not the accusative!
Puzzled...
/BP 8^)
--
B.Philip Jonsson mailto:melrochX@melroch.se (delete X)
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