Re: Creole/mixed language question
From: | John Cowan <cowan@...> |
Date: | Sunday, April 11, 2004, 16:39 |
Thomas Leigh scripsit:
> For example, we have English, whose base language (Anglo-Saxon)
> had three genders, 4 cases, a full-fledged subjunctive mood, and
> so on, but which lost most of that when it got hammered with
> Norse, French, etc. But on the other hand, we have, say,
> Maltese, which retains a lot of the morphological complexity of
> its base language, Arabic -- such as two genders,
> person/number/tense marking on verbs + pro drop -- despite the
> centuries of phonological change and heavy lexification from
> Italian and related languages...
Neither English nor Maltese is anything but a marginal example of a
creole, however. The other Germanic languages (with the exception of
Standard German -- but not the dialects -- have undergone very similar
kinds of changes). As for Maltese, it's only treated as a separate
language for sociolinguistic reasons: otherwise, it's basically an
Arabic colloquial, not even as deviant from modern standard Arabic as
Chad Arabic is. (Neither one has a diglossic relationship with MSA.)
Both English and Maltese have grabbed a great deal of vocabulary, of
course, but that doesn't make them creoles in any real sense.
--
Barry gules and argent of seven and six, John Cowan
on a canton azure fifty molets of the second. jcowan@reutershealth.com
--blazoning the U.S. flag http://www.ccil.org/~cowan