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Re: The last enemy

From:andrew <hobbit@...>
Date:Sunday, July 29, 2007, 1:31
On Fri, 27 Jul 2007, Douglas Koller wrote:
> Congrats! A question, though -- did a quick stroll through the > Brithenig website, but why not just go to the source? How does > "morth" end up masculine? I thought maybe a Latin 3rd declension > i-stem, el fin/la fin, el mar/la mer, thing going on. But "mors" is > feminine is Latin and (granted I don't know Catalan, Romanian, Langue > d'Oc, usw.) remains so in the Romance langs. It's masc. in German, > but...? The morph. seems Romance-based. Just thought: maybe like > Russian, stuff that ends in a consonant is masc. But "gas" is fem. So > I wonder. Please to explain. >
Pleased to explain: It's an early word and I slotted it in as a masculine noun because I had not decided what had happened with that declension. As a rule of thumb most of the words ending in -a were consided feminine and all others were considered masculine. Then after that all the final vowels dropped off. I will note it for the next time I do an update on the Brithenig wordlist -- which is currently overdue! In which case the translation should read: Lla inifig yllif ke sera diruth es lla forth Fortunately "inifig" can be masculine or feminine according to context. - andrew.