Re: The last enemy
From: | andrew <hobbit@...> |
Date: | Sunday, July 29, 2007, 1:31 |
On Fri, 27 Jul 2007, Douglas Koller wrote:
> Congrats! A question, though -- did a quick stroll through the
> Brithenig website, but why not just go to the source? How does
> "morth" end up masculine? I thought maybe a Latin 3rd declension
> i-stem, el fin/la fin, el mar/la mer, thing going on. But "mors" is
> feminine is Latin and (granted I don't know Catalan, Romanian, Langue
> d'Oc, usw.) remains so in the Romance langs. It's masc. in German,
> but...? The morph. seems Romance-based. Just thought: maybe like
> Russian, stuff that ends in a consonant is masc. But "gas" is fem. So
> I wonder. Please to explain.
>
Pleased to explain: It's an early word and I slotted it in as a
masculine noun because I had not decided what had happened with that
declension. As a rule of thumb most of the words ending in -a were
consided feminine and all others were considered masculine. Then after
that all the final vowels dropped off. I will note it for the next
time I do an update on the Brithenig wordlist -- which is currently
overdue!
In which case the translation should read:
Lla inifig yllif ke sera diruth es lla forth
Fortunately "inifig" can be masculine or feminine according to context.
- andrew.