Re: THEORY: Why more than two grammatical relations?
|From:||Eldin Raigmore <eldin_raigmore@...>|
|Date:||Friday, May 9, 2008, 15:32|
On Thu, 8 May 2008 04:13:00 -0400, J. 'Mach' Wust
>On Wed, 7 May 2008 13:54:12 -0400, Eldin Raigmore wrote:
>>In clauses where some object of the verb must be
>>given the genitive case, this is usually an example of "quirky" or "non-
>>canonical" object-marking; of "quirky case".
>What do you mean by "usually"? I've never seen a German grammar that
>would not consider them to be (genitive) objects.
I meant "in most analyses I've read of languages other than German".
I was intending to emphasize the "other than German".
The "... I've read ..." part was meant to be the secondary emphasis.
Unsaid, but relevant, is the fact that most analyses I've read were written in
English, and most of the rest in French; German is probably third, and I've
never read any linguistics in any other language that I was a fluent-enough
reader in to really absorb the analysis.
Anyway, I know French linguistic terminology and English linguistic terminology
are different in ways that can be misleading; I can tell the same is true of the
difference between English linguistic terms and Spanish linguistic terms,
although I've never really been able to understand a linguistics article in
Spanish all the way through.