Re: OT: code-switching

Quoting Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>:

> En réponse à Mark J. Reed :
>
>
> >To return to my original point, they still don't pronounce it the
> >way the French do, but in a way that matches the native phonology
> >of Spanish.
>
> Actually, it's phonemically /kana'da/, and as such identical to the French
> pronunciation. The /d/ -> [D] being purely phonetic, it doesn't count as
> "not pronouncing the same way".
It works beautifully in this particular example, but generally surely must
Spanish and French at the very least be straining the degree of dissimilarity
which makes identification of phonemes pretty pointless?

                                                           Andreas