Re: OT: code-switching
| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, January 6, 2004, 19:44 |
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On Tue, Jan 06, 2004 at 08:26:26PM +0100, Christophe Grandsire wrote:
> Actually, it's phonemically /kana'da/, and as such identical to the French
> pronunciation. The /d/ -> [D] being purely phonetic, it doesn't count as
> "not pronouncing the same way".
Ah, but it *does*. What I was objecting to was breaking out of
the surrounding language's native phonology to pronounce foreign
names, the way [karaoke] and [3iraq] violate English phonology.
Pronouncing <Canada> in Spanish without the intervocalic reduction of /d/ to
[D] would be the same sort of phenomenon.
-Mark
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