Re: A prioi vs. A posteriori ?
From: | Peter Clark <peter-clark@...> |
Date: | Friday, January 31, 2003, 3:36 |
On Thursday 30 January 2003 08:43 pm, Greg Williams wrote:
> Have any of yall created an 'a priori' language with a lot of 'a
> posteriori' vocabulary (i.e., with a lot of the lexicon from natlangs) or
> the reverse (an 'a posteriori' language with a lot of 'a priori'
> vocabulary)?
Well, I'm not sure how you would define "a lot," but Enamyn borrows heavily
from Ancient (Koine) Greek for ecclesiastical terms, and to a less extent
trade terms. But this is because Enamyn was spoken in the Crimea until the
11th century AD, and so was influenced by the Greek colonies along the
southern coast. The first Christian converts were around 250 AD, and by the
middle of the fifth century, the old religion (mostly pantheistic/anamist)
had been completely replaced by Christianity. So naturally most of the
ecclesiastical terms would be Greek. Similarily, words for previously unknown
entities were usually borrowed from Greek.
I've toyed with the idea of an "early Enamyn" and "late Enamyn," with the
latter showing more influences from Khazar, but this would be rather
difficult since very little is known of Khazar. We shall see...
:Peter