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Re: reformed Welsh Spelling - comments?

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Saturday, December 6, 2003, 1:23
Quoting Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>:

> On Thursday, December 4, 2003, at 09:20 PM, Andreas Johansson wrote: > > [snip] > > > Then perhaps you can answer the question I had under the assumption that > > it > > was meant to be [X]? > > Correct - it was meant to be SAMPA [X], i.e. IPA cursive Greek khi. > > > Namely, what other languages are you thinking of that > > writes it as |ch|? I still can't think of any. > > {sigh} I meant a voiceles "guttural" fricative (i.e. using 'guttural' in > its > older pre-feature-geometry sense), i.e. any voiceless fricative made at > back > of the mouth, whether velar [x] or uvular [X]. I know of no European > language > that has these as two distinct meanings; and I have been told that Welsh > is not > the only European language to possess it. IIRC a linguist from that part > of the > world told me it varied in different Slav langs - but either > pronunciation on the part of L2 speakers is understood. > > In short, I meant all those languages where popular books say, as they do > for > Welsh: "like the _ch_ in Scots _loch_."
OK. That was not clear to me. I'd, btw, like to apologize if you perceived the tone of my previous post as unfriendly; it was not meant to be, but when I reread the quotes, it strikes me as a bit ... sarcastic. Andreas

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Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>