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Re: English l and Spanish ll

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Wednesday, November 10, 2004, 12:11
Quoting "J. 'Mach' Wust" <j_mach_wust@...>:

> On Wed, 10 Nov 2004 01:03:46 +0100, Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> wrote: > > >Quoting Rene Uittenbogaard <ruittenb@...>: > > > >> Tristan Mc Leay wrote: > >> > >> > In at least some it actually is [dZ)]. > >> > >> Is there a difference between [dZ] and [dZ)] ? If so, what is it? > > > >Well, sort-of. > > > >[dZ)] is an affricate, [dZ] is ambiguous between a cluster and an > >affricate. The difference is quite minimal, except in cases there a > >syllable boundary would fall within the cluster - [ad.Za] vs [a.dZa] might > >very well be contrastive somewhere. > > I imagine you're describing the distinction between a [d] with its own > release followed by a [Z] and the affricate, where the release of the stop > isn't previous to the fricative, but simultaneous with it. > > Syllable boundaries aren't sounds, but there may be languages where they > have certain effects on sounds (which doesn't make them sounds).
I suppose I should have written [ad.Za] and [a.dZ)a]. But I'm slightly worried to (re-)discover that the X-SAMPA document claims that Polish _czy_ and _trzy_ are a minimal pair for [tS1] and [t-S1]! CXS could write [tS)1] and [t-S1] to be entirely unambiguous. How anyone can tell those apart in connected speech rather boggles my mind, however ... Andreas

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Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>