>
> The Latin is:
>
> I. vado vadere vasi vasum (3rd conjugation)
> II. eo, ire, ii, itum
> III. sum, esse, fui, 'esum' (this is surely made up!)
>
> Spanish:
>
> I.
> present: voy, vas, va, vamos, vais, van
> pr. subj: vaya, vayas, vaya, vayamos, vayais, vayan
> impv: ve, vaya, vamos/vayamos, vayan
>
> II.
> infinitive: ir
> past participle: ido
> present participle: yendo
> impv: id
> impf: iba, ibas, iba, ibamos, ibais, iban
> fut/cond: ir-, etc.
>
> III.
> past: fui, fuiste, fue, fuimos, fuisteis, fueron
> impf subj: fuera, etc. / fuese, etc.
> fut subj: fuere, etc.
>
> ______
> I'm not entirely sure what is weird about this,
> except for the infusion of the fu- root from
> <sum,esse>. Iberian is different from other Romance
> varieties in that it retained a few more <eo, ire>
> forms. But even French still has <irai> not <*allerai
> or or maybe *audrai>.
> The infinitive, had it survived would have been
> *vaer, like 'caer' 'to fall' from <cado, cadere, casi,
> casum>
>
>
> -Elliott
>
>
>
>
>
> --- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote:
>
> > ...and Italian andare. And there's Latin "Quo
> > vadis?", but I don't
> > remember the dictionary forms of that verb. Nor
> > does the
> > v-stem+andare stuff explain the Iberian infinitive
> > form...
> >
> > On 7/3/07, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> wrote:
> > > ... And I just remembered that French «aller» has
> > similar forms mixed
> > > into the same tense, with singular v- vs. plural
> > all-. So the verb
> > > conflation must date to sometime before the
> > Franco-Spanish linguistic
> > > split...
> > >
> > > On 7/3/07, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
> > wrote:
> > > > This should probably be tagged differently, but
> > I don't know with
> > > > what. The question concerns the historical
> > development of a natlang.
> > > > Specifically Spanish. How did the verb «ir»
> > develop? The usual Latin
> > > > root for "go" seems to have become «andar»,
> > while the everyday word
> > > > comes elsewhence and arrives in an odd set of
> > forms. Was there a
> > > > merger, like with English "go" and "wend"? Did
> > the present tense come
> > > > from some verb which, had its infinitive
> > survived, would now be
> > > > *«var»?
> > > >
> > > > This question occurred to me while I was trying
> > to
> > > > remember/reconstruct the polite imperative for
> > «dar», since the two
> > > > verbs have several parallel forms. (Though
> > *«daya» is not one of
> > > > them). The other thing that occurred to me is
> > that
> > > > _The_Dar_Imperative_ would be a good name for a
> > science fiction
> > > > thriller. And/or a rock band.
> > > >
> > > > --
> > > > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
> > > >
> > >
> > >
> > > --
> > > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
> > >
> >
> >
> > --
> > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
> >
>
>
>
>
>
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