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CHAT: History of «ir»

From:Elliott Lash <erelion12@...>
Date:Tuesday, July 3, 2007, 22:41
The Latin is:

I.  vado vadere vasi vasum  (3rd conjugation)
II. eo, ire, ii, itum
III. sum, esse, fui, 'esum' (this is surely made up!)

Spanish:

I.
 present: voy, vas, va, vamos, vais, van
 pr. subj: vaya, vayas, vaya, vayamos, vayais, vayan
 impv: ve, vaya, vamos/vayamos, vayan

II.
 infinitive: ir
 past participle: ido
 present participle: yendo
 impv: id
 impf: iba, ibas, iba, ibamos, ibais, iban
 fut/cond: ir-, etc.

III.
 past: fui, fuiste, fue, fuimos, fuisteis, fueron
 impf subj: fuera, etc. / fuese, etc.
 fut subj: fuere, etc.

______
  I'm not entirely sure what is weird about this,
except for the infusion of the fu- root from
<sum,esse>. Iberian is different from other Romance
varieties in that it retained a few more <eo, ire>
forms. But even French still has <irai> not <*allerai
or or maybe *audrai>.
 The infinitive, had it survived would have been
*vaer, like 'caer' 'to fall' from <cado, cadere, casi,
casum>


 -Elliott





--- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote:

> ...and Italian andare. And there's Latin "Quo > vadis?", but I don't > remember the dictionary forms of that verb. Nor > does the > v-stem+andare stuff explain the Iberian infinitive > form... > > On 7/3/07, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> wrote: > > ... And I just remembered that French «aller» has > similar forms mixed > > into the same tense, with singular v- vs. plural > all-. So the verb > > conflation must date to sometime before the > Franco-Spanish linguistic > > split... > > > > On 7/3/07, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> > wrote: > > > This should probably be tagged differently, but > I don't know with > > > what. The question concerns the historical > development of a natlang. > > > Specifically Spanish. How did the verb «ir» > develop? The usual Latin > > > root for "go" seems to have become «andar», > while the everyday word > > > comes elsewhence and arrives in an odd set of > forms. Was there a > > > merger, like with English "go" and "wend"? Did > the present tense come > > > from some verb which, had its infinitive > survived, would now be > > > *«var»? > > > > > > This question occurred to me while I was trying > to > > > remember/reconstruct the polite imperative for > «dar», since the two > > > verbs have several parallel forms. (Though > *«daya» is not one of > > > them). The other thing that occurred to me is > that > > > _The_Dar_Imperative_ would be a good name for a > science fiction > > > thriller. And/or a rock band. > > > > > > -- > > > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> > > > > > > > > > -- > > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> > > > > > -- > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> >
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Replies

Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
R A Brown <ray@...>History of «ir»