Re: Question about "do"

From: "Christian Thalmann" <cinga@...>
> --- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Roberto Suarez Soto <ask4it@G...> wrote:
>
>  >         (Just nitpicking)
>  >
>  >         The tilde in "éste" is wrong; it's only used as a diacritical
>  > mark, to differentiate pronouns (with tilde) and articles (no tilde).
>
> (Just nitpicking)
>
> The mark ´ is called an acute accent.  A tilde would be ~.
[Nitpick further?]

As far as Spanish is concerned, actually "tilde" only means "accent mark".


    *Muke!
--
http://frath.net/

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