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Re: Question about "do"

From:Joe <joe@...>
Date:Monday, July 28, 2003, 13:43
----- Original Message -----
From: "Muke Tever" <muke@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Monday, July 28, 2003 2:31 PM
Subject: Re: Question about "do"


> From: "Christian Thalmann" <cinga@...> > > --- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Roberto Suarez Soto <ask4it@G...> wrote: > > > > > (Just nitpicking) > > > > > > The tilde in "éste" is wrong; it's only used as a diacritical > > > mark, to differentiate pronouns (with tilde) and articles (no tilde). > > > > (Just nitpicking) > > > > The mark ´ is called an acute accent. A tilde would be ~. > > [Nitpick further?] > > As far as Spanish is concerned, actually "tilde" only means "accent mark".
(The final nitpick) But we are speaking in English.
> > *Muke! > -- > http://frath.net/ >

Replies

Carlos Thompson <chlewey@...>
Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>