Re: Question about "do"
| From: | Joe <joe@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Monday, July 28, 2003, 13:43 |
|---|
----- Original Message -----
From: "Muke Tever" <muke@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Monday, July 28, 2003 2:31 PM
Subject: Re: Question about "do"
> From: "Christian Thalmann" <cinga@...>
> > --- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Roberto Suarez Soto <ask4it@G...> wrote:
> >
> > > (Just nitpicking)
> > >
> > > The tilde in "éste" is wrong; it's only used as a diacritical
> > > mark, to differentiate pronouns (with tilde) and articles (no tilde).
> >
> > (Just nitpicking)
> >
> > The mark ´ is called an acute accent. A tilde would be ~.
>
> [Nitpick further?]
>
> As far as Spanish is concerned, actually "tilde" only means "accent mark".
(The final nitpick)
But we are speaking in English.
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