Joe wrote:
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Muke Tever" <muke@...>
> To: <CONLANG@...>
> Sent: Monday, July 28, 2003 2:31 PM
> Subject: Re: Question about "do"
>
>
> > From: "Christian Thalmann" <cinga@...>
> > > --- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Roberto Suarez Soto <ask4it@G...>
wrote:
> > >
> > > > (Just nitpicking)
> > > >
> > > > The tilde in "éste" is wrong; it's only used as a
diacritical
> > > > mark, to differentiate pronouns (with tilde) and articles (no
tilde).
> > >
> > > (Just nitpicking)
> > >
> > > The mark ´ is called an acute accent. A tilde would be ~.
> >
> > [Nitpick further?]
> >
> > As far as Spanish is concerned, actually "tilde" only means "accent
mark".
>
> (The final nitpick)
>
> But we are speaking in English.
ObMeToo:
And I, as Native Spanish speaker, do agree with Joe: while we call "tilde"
an accent mark, when speaking in Spanish, "tilde" in English (not speaking
about English language but when using English as language), is used only for
the "virgüililla": this is the "cuchuflito de la ñ" (or whatever you use to
call it).
We must be careful with falsos amigos.
-- Carlos Th