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Re: Question about "do"

From:Roberto Suarez Soto <ask4it@...>
Date:Sunday, July 27, 2003, 20:22
On Jul/27/2003, Joe wrote:

> vais manger cette tourte", "Voy a comer éste pastel". I don't thionk they do
(Just nitpicking) The tilde in "éste" is wrong; it's only used as a diacritical mark, to differentiate pronouns (with tilde) and articles (no tilde). So, in this case, it would be "este", without tilde. If you only said "Voy a comer éste" (in response to "¿Qué pastel vas a comer?", for example), then "éste" would be the proper form. -- Roberto Suarez Soto

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Joe <joe@...>