Re: THEORY: Adpositional Heads

> In the grammars of most languages, when discussiong adpositional (post-
> /prepositional) phrases, the adpositions are treated as the heads.  What's
> the reasoning for this?  It seems counter-intuitive to me.  My opinion is
> that, at least in many languages (like English), the "objects" of the
> adpositional phrases are the heads, and the adpositions themselves are
> modifiers.  What do y'all think?
Well, semantically that may be so, but grammatically... frex, in "beneath
me", the pronoun "me" has no effect on the preposition "beneath", but the
preposition, being the head, *does* govern the case of the pronoun (which
is why it's "me" and not "I".)


     *Muke!
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