Re: Language universal?
From: | Robert Hailman <robert@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, February 6, 2001, 23:08 |
Andreas Johansson wrote:
>
> >
> >Musing on a new thread here . . .
> >
> >A while ago, someone mentioned that prepositions do not ever govern the
> >nominative case in languages that mark case.
>
> I assume genitive don't count? Otherwise, English do mark case and have
> nominative after prepositions ...
<snip>
I wouldn't really call the non-genitive case in English the nominative.
I think "oblique" is the term to describe an "everything that doesn't
have it's own case" case, such as the non-genitive in English.
I'm not sure about this, though. Anyone reading this, feel free to
correct me if I'm mistaken on any counts.
--
Robert