Mike Poxon wrote:
>
>Isn't this what the romance langs did? Their definites were originally
>Latin
>demonstratives, I believe; but what they had before that happened, I can't
>remember!
>Mike
They did that, but the trouble is that Latin didn't have any definite
article they had to do away with first.
Andreas
> > How probable is it for a language that has a definite article to replace
>it
> > with a form derived from a demonstrative? Are any such examples known
>from
> > real-world languages?
> >
> > Andreas
> >
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