----- Original Message -----
From: "Doug Dee" <AmateurLinguist@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Saturday, September 06, 2003 1:00 AM
Subject: Re: Inflecting Jesus Christ (was: Never violate a universal ...)
> In a message dated 9/5/2003 3:04:40 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
> joerg_rhiemeier@WEB.DE writes:
>
>
> >How would "Jesus" be declined in Greek?
>
>
> According to _Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar_ by William D. Mounce,
it's:
>
> nom: Iesous
> gen: Iesou
> dat: Iesou
> acc: Iesoun
So how would that transfer to Latin?