Re: Language naming terminology

Carlos Thompson wrote:

> I know the English word for _virrey_ is Vicerois (from French) as used in
> India.  How should I refer to the place a Vicerois rules? Viceroisdom?
"viceroyalty".

> I put "stolen" in italics because I knew it wasn't a purpousse of
> imperialism or something like that.  As Nik Taylor points, English
> descendents where "Americans" long before revolution as Spaniards
> descendants where "americanos" by the same time.  Just happend that the US
> Revolution preceded the other American Revolution.  When someone once said
> "America for the Americans" had the wide American concept in mind, but many
> believed US Imperialism over its _backyard_ begun with that phrase.
>
> This can show how politics, and supremacy make the international names of
> Countries.  Just as Roma could change the name of Judea to Palestina. But
> let's stop chating about politics and supremacy.  Just language.
Well, it *is* a matter of language. In the English speaking world, when
people referred to "America", they were almost always referring to that
part of America which was important to English speakers, i.e., the 13
colonies along the eastern seaboard of what is now the United States.
It should not be surprising that an artefact of something several hundred
years old should remain in the language.  It has nothing to do with imperialism
(agreeing with you here), only the narrow view of English speakers (both
American and British) way back then. Imperialism as a policy was not
really even possible in any real sense until the (Teddy) Roosevelt
administration
(and indeed, imperialist action began around that time).



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Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
ICQ#: 4315704   AIM: Deuterotom
Website: <http://www.angelfire.com/tx/eclectorium/>
"Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero."

"Yet hadde he but litel gold in cofre;
But al that he myghte of his freendes hente,
On bookes and on lernynge he it spente"
    _Canterbury Tales_, Chaucer (Gen. Prol. 298-300)
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