Re: "I'm after ..." (Re: Maybe Spam? "Sorunsuz Yathamanýn Kefyi .. .")
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Monday, September 27, 2004, 21:47 |
> P.S. You mission, if you choose to accept it, is to pick out some other
> dialectisms in the above text.
... which is now actually the below text.
Lessee. "wee". "..., so I do." Is "does other effects"
Hiberno-English? My 'lect requires "has" there in place of "does".
-Marcos
On Mon, Sep 27, 2004 at 10:08:54PM +0100, Keith Gaughan wrote:
> Be assured, I'm quite fluent in English and have spoken it since I was a
> wee child. If you pay really good attention to what I write, you'll
> probably notice that I've a tendancy to slip back into Sligo
> Hiberno-English, so I do.
>
> What you picked out is a pretty salient example of the dialect. The
> adverb 'after' is used to modify the sentence to a near-past perfect
> tense when used with the present continuous. It does other effects when
> used in with the future, e.g. 'you'd/'ll be after a drink, won't you?',
> meaning 'Do you want a drink?'. I think this crops up in some british
> dialects, but I'm not sure which.
>
> The meaning comes from the use of the phrase 'tar eis' (these days
> written by some as 'tareis', but that looks terrible and Irish is rarely
> their first language when they do), meaning... no, guess! Yup, 'after'.
> The Hiberno-English usage is identical to the one in Gaelic, all forms.
>
> The meaning you mentioned would be understood, but we wouldn't use it
> here.
>
> K.
>
> --
> Keith Gaughan -- talideon.com
> The man who removes a mountain begins
> by carrying away small stones...
> ...to make place for some really big nukes!