Re: Conlang Typology Survey

Mark J. Reed wrote:
> On Tue, May 20, 2003 at 10:57:08PM -0400, Matt Trinsic wrote:
 >
>>Another question I have is if there is a name for a grammer which has a
>>set of inflections to flag the end of a sentance or clause? For
>>instance, saying "I see" would be "liest foez".
>
>
> Does the form of the verb change because it's the end of the clause,
> or because it has no object?  If it's the latter, then what you
> have is a productive way of making an intransitive verb out of a
> transitive one.  If it's the former, then I'm not sure what it's called,
> but I'd guess it's analogous to the particles in Japanese which
> morphemically convey that something is a question (ka) or an
> exclamation (yo).
>
> -Mark
>
Technically, it is because it is the end of the clause, although
thinking about it, the only time the verb is the last word of the
sentance is when there is no object (adjectives and adpositions dont
count for this). So for the verbs at least, there is no difference in
practice. The same inflections carry on to other words that become the
end-of-sentance/clause as well though. So the sentance "I" would be "liez"