Re: CHAT: Historical linguistics, and soundlaws
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, March 25, 1999, 23:14 |
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FFlores wrote:
> How did Spanish end up with both sounds?
> I know a lot of Spanish words have the trilled <rr> in borrowings
> from Euzkadi (Basque), but that can't be the only source. Anybody
> knows?
I THINK that <rr> came from geminated <r>, but I'm not sure.
--
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