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Re: CHAT: Historical linguistics, and soundlaws

From:Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>
Date:Thursday, March 25, 1999, 23:14
FFlores wrote:
> How did Spanish end up with both sounds? > I know a lot of Spanish words have the trilled <rr> in borrowings > from Euzkadi (Basque), but that can't be the only source. Anybody > knows?
I THINK that <rr> came from geminated <r>, but I'm not sure. -- "It's bad manners to talk about ropes in the house of a man whose father was hanged." - Irish proverb http://members.tripod.com/~Nik_Taylor/X-Files http://members.tripod.com/~Nik_Taylor/Books.html ICQ: 18656696 AIM Screen-name: NikTailor