Re: markjjones@HOTMAIL.COM
| From: | Steven Williams <feurieaux@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Sunday, March 6, 2005, 21:02 |
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--- Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> schrieb:
> On Mar 6, 2005, at 9:33 PM, Steven Williams wrote:
>
> > It surprised me, too. In at least two books, one
> > on the proto-Semitic sound system, and another on
> > the glottalic theory of PIE, they state that the
> > likely source of [D_g] is [K\_g] or plain [K\]
> > (am I using the right symbol, [K\], for a voiced
> > lateral fricative?). It does seem like it would
> > be possible, but then again, I'm no expert on
> > proto-Semitic.
>
> According to the chart i have here:
> Proto-Semitic » Arabic
> /T>/ »» /D_g/
> /K>/ »» /d_g/
> /t>/ »» /t_g/
> /ts)>/ »» /s_g/
> /k>/ »» /q/
Stoopid, stoopid; consider me proven wrong. I'm glad I
qualified my statements with an 'IIRC', then...
> > Indeed, [D] and [D_g] sound almost identical. I
> > can't tell the difference myself, if it weren't
> > for the effect that the emphatics have on vowels.
>
> /D/ and /D_g/ sound very distinct to me. They also
> feel very different when i pronounce them.
Am I doing it wrong, then? I'm pronouncing a [D], but
I'm raising the back part of my tongue to the velum,
the sides of my tongue touching my teeth. Very
difficult articulation for me to make; I'm also trying
to imitate as best I can sound samples I find on the
Internet, since I don't know any native Arabic
speakers personally to ask them for pointers.
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