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Re: Brothers-in-law

From:Michael Adams <michael.adams1@...>
Date:Friday, May 5, 2006, 10:00
Well, I know you have a word or more for maiden/young girl, and
then you have one for women which since she is technically not a
virgin any more, but also assume she is married or might as well
be, she is a women aka wife.

Or you mean the term Mother, since mother normally speaks of
things like not being a virgin, not being single, being married,
and now having kids..

I know even the puritans, you had premarital sex, but the basic
assumption was, as soon as she became pregnant, she was to be
married.. Sort of you dated/courted something like the later
term Finacee (French word?), and then she became with child and
was NOW a mother.
And likely married in the bargain cause she was pregnant.

Mike


Mike

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----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Bleackley" <Peter.Bleackley@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Thursday, May 04, 2006 11:44 PM
Subject: Re: Brothers-in-law


> staving Jim Henry: > >On 5/4/06, Paul Bennett <paul-bennett@...> wrote: > > > >>Apparently, there is no common PIE word for "wife"
reconstructable, nor
> >>for any wife-relative family terms. What this says about the
structure and
> >>nature of PIE families is left as an exercise for the
reader...
> > > >Would it be reasonable to guess that PIE, like > >modern French, used a single word for both > >"woman" and "wife"? Ancient Greek seems to have > >lost the PIE root for husband as far as I can tell, > >substituting a generic "aner, andros" for man/husband. > >What other languages (IE or not) have common > >words for "man/husband" and/or "woman/wife"? > >Are there any commonalities obvious about their > >present or recent past marriage customs? > > I believe that in Old English, "wif" also overlapped meanings
between
> "wife" and "woman", and I think that "cwen" did too. > > Pete