Josh Roth <Fuscian@...> wrote:
>=20
> I wonder why in French, some verbs use one auxiliary (avoir-to have) an=
d=20
> others (around 20 intransitives) use another (=EAtre-to be). Actually, =
didn't=20
> English do this too at one point?
I think the =EAtre-verbs are all experiencial <sp?> verbs, or
maybe verbs that carry some degree of 'middle voice'... In Spanish
those verbs are all conjugated with _haber_ 'to have' but they
usually take a pseudo-reflexive pronoun.
French: _je suis tomb=E9_ 'I am fallen'
Spanish: _yo me ca=ED_ 'I fell *myself' or _yo me he ca=EDdo_ 'I have fal=
len',
while just stative is _yo estoy ca=EDdo_ 'I am fallen'.
I don't really remember more =EAtre-verbs from French... Is it
_avoir venu_ or _=EAtre venu_?
--Pablo Flores