Re: Announcement: New auxlang "Choton"

--- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, "Pascal A. Kramm" <pkramm@A...> wrote:

> I disagree, it clearly IS distinguishable. An English speaker generally
> hears no difference between these two sounds, but that doesn't mean that
> there isn't one.
> A good example here is the German word "Ärger" (engl. "anger"). Ith
is given
> as /ErgEr/ in the dictionary, which is clearly wrong as there is a
notable
> difference between the 'ä' and the 'e'. The word is neither "Ärgär" nor
> "Erger", but "Ärger".
You have a very strange dictionary.  Ärger is pronounced
[E6g6], where [6] is the "a-flavored schwa".  Phonemically,
I guess it's /Erg@r/.  Clearly, the [E] is distinct from the
schwa, but that has nothing to do with the spelling, only
with stress placement.

Consider this: When the new orthography writes "behände"
rather than "behende", does the pronunciation change?  In
standard High German, it doesn't, which is why they could
pull off that kind of change in the first place.

BTW: Sorry if I came off unfriendly in my first post.  Your
comments struck me as rather arrogant, but now I see that
they simply come from misinformation.

Nichts für ungut,


-- Christian Thalmann