Theiling Online    Sitemap    Conlang Mailing List HQ    Attic   

Re: Conlang legal protection (WAS: Conlang music)

From:Chris Wright <dhasenan@...>
Date:Thursday, January 8, 2009, 13:31
2009/1/8 Sai Emrys <saizai@...>:
> On Wed, Jan 7, 2009 at 5:35 PM, Paul Kershaw <ptkershaw@...> wrote: >> It hasn't, and I don't think Paramount would win. Wikipedia suggests the best >> precedent is Feist v Rural >> (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feist_Publications_v._Rural_Telephone_Service), >> where a telephone book company tried to argue that its contents were >> copyrighted. SCOTUS ruled that you can copyright how you present information, >> but you can't copyright information itself (so if I type up the phone book in >> a different format, I wouldn't be violating copyright law). >> >> As far as I can tell (but IANAL), any claim would have to come under trademark >> law, not copyright law. For instance, that's how Lucas managed to stop Luther >> Campbell from performing as Luke Skyywalker >> (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Luke_Skyywalker_Records). I'm not sure the >> courts would be impressed with someone's attempt to claim all the thousands >> of words in their conlang are trademarked, though. >> >> But I also agree with Chris's follow-up: It's good form to ask permission, even >> if it's not legally required. > > AFAIK, the legal argument here is that, unlike a normal phonebook, > map, or dictionary, a conlang author has created the words that are > being listed - they're not externally existing information that is > being described.
This is true -- that's why conlangs can probably have protection. However, take as an example Finnegan's Wake. Take a selection of its non-English words (they're mostly nonsense to the casual reader [I am a casual reader]). Create a new story using only those words. Is that a copyright violation? Can you copyright a single word? I think the courts would not accept that. People attempting to control the use of a very small work have invariably turned to trademarks, and Paul Kershaw has argued against that.
> If a court ruled that this is the case, then practically speaking, > using words created by the author would be copyright infringement > (although potentially covered by one of the exclusions that makes that > OK). > > However, making up new words might not be, since copyright does not > protect *methods*, i.e. the grammar itself, just *content*, i.e. the > corpus. > > One could argue that a grammar is patentable.
The patent could cover the whole language, not just the grammar. What is claimed is: 1. A system of encoding thoughts. 2. A system as claimed in (1) wherein the encoding is verbal. 3. A system as claimed in (2) wherein there exists a written encoding for the verbal components. 4. A system as claimed in (2) consisting of a phonology, a lexicon, and a grammar. ... But this suffers the same issue as software patents. Software patents get around this by using "a system comprised of a computer and...", which isn't appropriate to languages.
> Practically though - I don't know of any court cases that have > actually tested either of these arguments, so it's pretty nebulous. > > - Sai >