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Re: of cakes and men -- doraya syntax

From:Adam Parrish <myth@...>
Date:Thursday, November 11, 1999, 3:45
On Wed, 10 Nov 1999, Grandsire, C.A. wrote:

> As I see it, Doraya would be a VSO language where the position in front > of the verb is available for topicalisation (like my Chasma"o"cho) or > old information, in which case the fronted noun or nouns must be > recalled by a pronoun after the verb. On the other hand, a pronoun > always refer to old information, so if its antecedent is not in the > sentence itself, the pronoun must be put in front of the verb, even when > it's a contracted form of two pronouns where only one refers to old > information not in the sentence. Do I understand it right? >
Sounds like you've got it. Here are my rules so far: 1) fronting of a subject pronoun that occurs alone (i.e., without an antecedent in the same clause) is mandatory, thus giving: tai tyepylen rian 3ps perf.eat cake He ate a cake. (he = given info) instead of the expected *_tyepylen tai rian_. 2) Fronting of pronoun contractions is mandatory. To illustrate, the "underlying" structure of this sentence: kos tasa tyepylen person 3ps.3pn perf.eat The person ate it. (person and it = given info) would be something like *_kos tyepylen tai sae_. 3) Fronted non-subject NPs are marked with the clitic _ui_, as in: rianui tasa tyepylen cake.TOP 3ps.3pn perf.eat He ate the cake (As for the cake, it was eaten by him) or, to demonstrate _ui_'s cliticness further: rian mayaui tasa tyepylen cake good.TOP 3ps.3pn perf.eat He ate the good cake (As for the good cake, it was eaten by him)
> Well, I don't feel it is unnaturalistic, even if I cannot see any > examples in natural languages. I find it a very natural way to do it (a > little like the object being after the verb in French, except in pronoun > form or topicalised). I think some examples of spoken French that > Mathias has already given fit well this behaviour, so maybe there is > indeed a precedent in a natlang. So go for it, it appears very natural > (at least for me). >
My (admittedly inadequate) knowledge of French grammar has always been an inspiration for Doraya in many regards, particularly the pronoun fronting feature (a feature of French that I absolutely adore; nothing beats a good "je lui l'ai donne'" or "il s'en souvient"). But as I mentioned, Castilian Spanish seems to have a structure similar to Doraya's, except in reverse (Mr. Brandt-Young will no doubt recognize this example from the Ling 5 midterm): Que' hizo Consuelo? 'What did Consuelo do?' Consuelo comio' tu bocadillo. 'Consuelo ate your sandwich.' ("Consuelo" = given; "comio' tu bocadillo" = new) but Quie'n comio' mi bocadillo? 'Who ate my sandwich?' Tu bocadillo lo comio' Consuelo. 'Your sandwich, Consuelo ate it.' ("Tu bocadillo lo comio'" = given; "Consuelo" = new)
> Just one last question: could the 10th sentence be put like this: > > kos rianui tyepylen tasa. > person cake.TOP eat.perf 3ps.3pn > The person ate the cake. > > or is it ungrammatical? In my understanding of this pattern, this last > sentence is perfectly possible, unless you have an additional rule that > says that compounded pronouns must be put in front of the verb anyway. > Go for what you prefer! >
See rule #2 above. It probably wouldn't be *completely* ungrammatical; you'd get across the point that there's a cake and there's a guy and there's some eating going on, but it'd sound a little odd. But anyway, I guess the part of this that I'm most concerned about is the clitic _ui_, which (again) marks non-subject NPs that are moved out of the main phrase. I like the way it looks, but I wonder if it's necessary and/or naturalistic. It doesn't seem to be necessary in either French or Spanish -- but both of those languages have separate pronoun forms for different cases, a feature that Doraya's pronouns lack. Thanks for your feedback! Adam ----------------------------. myth@inquo.net | http://www.inquo.net/~myth/ | ----------------------------'