Re: of cakes and men -- doraya syntax
From: | Adam Parrish <myth@...> |
Date: | Thursday, November 11, 1999, 3:45 |
On Wed, 10 Nov 1999, Grandsire, C.A. wrote:
> As I see it, Doraya would be a VSO language where the position in front
> of the verb is available for topicalisation (like my Chasma"o"cho) or
> old information, in which case the fronted noun or nouns must be
> recalled by a pronoun after the verb. On the other hand, a pronoun
> always refer to old information, so if its antecedent is not in the
> sentence itself, the pronoun must be put in front of the verb, even when
> it's a contracted form of two pronouns where only one refers to old
> information not in the sentence. Do I understand it right?
>
Sounds like you've got it. Here are my rules so far: 1)
fronting of a subject pronoun that occurs alone (i.e., without an
antecedent in the same clause) is mandatory, thus giving:
tai tyepylen rian
3ps perf.eat cake
He ate a cake. (he = given info)
instead of the expected *_tyepylen tai rian_. 2) Fronting of pronoun
contractions is mandatory. To illustrate, the "underlying" structure of
this sentence:
kos tasa tyepylen
person 3ps.3pn perf.eat
The person ate it. (person and it = given info)
would be something like *_kos tyepylen tai sae_. 3) Fronted
non-subject NPs are marked with the clitic _ui_, as in:
rianui tasa tyepylen
cake.TOP 3ps.3pn perf.eat
He ate the cake (As for the cake, it was eaten by him)
or, to demonstrate _ui_'s cliticness further:
rian mayaui tasa tyepylen
cake good.TOP 3ps.3pn perf.eat
He ate the good cake (As for the good cake, it was eaten by him)
> Well, I don't feel it is unnaturalistic, even if I cannot see any
> examples in natural languages. I find it a very natural way to do it (a
> little like the object being after the verb in French, except in pronoun
> form or topicalised). I think some examples of spoken French that
> Mathias has already given fit well this behaviour, so maybe there is
> indeed a precedent in a natlang. So go for it, it appears very natural
> (at least for me).
>
My (admittedly inadequate) knowledge of French grammar has
always been an inspiration for Doraya in many regards, particularly
the pronoun fronting feature (a feature of French that I absolutely
adore; nothing beats a good "je lui l'ai donne'" or "il s'en souvient").
But as I mentioned, Castilian Spanish seems to have a structure similar
to Doraya's, except in reverse (Mr. Brandt-Young will no doubt recognize
this example from the Ling 5 midterm):
Que' hizo Consuelo?
'What did Consuelo do?'
Consuelo comio' tu bocadillo.
'Consuelo ate your sandwich.' ("Consuelo" = given; "comio' tu
bocadillo" = new)
but
Quie'n comio' mi bocadillo?
'Who ate my sandwich?'
Tu bocadillo lo comio' Consuelo.
'Your sandwich, Consuelo ate it.' ("Tu bocadillo lo comio'" =
given; "Consuelo" = new)
> Just one last question: could the 10th sentence be put like this:
>
> kos rianui tyepylen tasa.
> person cake.TOP eat.perf 3ps.3pn
> The person ate the cake.
>
> or is it ungrammatical? In my understanding of this pattern, this last
> sentence is perfectly possible, unless you have an additional rule that
> says that compounded pronouns must be put in front of the verb anyway.
> Go for what you prefer!
>
See rule #2 above. It probably wouldn't be *completely*
ungrammatical; you'd get across the point that there's a cake and
there's a guy and there's some eating going on, but it'd sound a little
odd.
But anyway, I guess the part of this that I'm most concerned
about is the clitic _ui_, which (again) marks non-subject NPs that are
moved out of the main phrase. I like the way it looks, but I wonder if
it's necessary and/or naturalistic. It doesn't seem to be necessary in
either French or Spanish -- but both of those languages have separate
pronoun forms for different cases, a feature that Doraya's pronouns
lack.
Thanks for your feedback!
Adam
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myth@inquo.net |
http://www.inquo.net/~myth/ |
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