Re: USAGE: syllables
From: | Alexandre Lang <allexpro@...> |
Date: | Monday, February 2, 2004, 5:04 |
On Sun, 1 Feb 2004 22:37:46 -0600, "Nik Taylor" <yonjuuni@...>
said:
> Alexandre Lang wrote:
> > Maybe breaks between words, for example?
>
> Those are often marked by simple spaces. And there is the use of # to
> mark word-boundaries where necessary.
Is there any phonetical difference between [.] and [#] though, besides
length?
> > So it's just to facilitate manipulation of some languages?
> > It's not a general rule then and doesn't apply to all languages?
>
> No, no, it is a general rule. Rhyme = nucleus + coda. That was just
> part of the reason for having the concept of rhyme.
>
> > And it's true that it would be possible to have a language that would
> > nasalize a vowel when they preceded by a nasal consonant, in which case
> > the onset and nucleus would form the rhyme?
>
> Well, except that a language that nasalized a vowel when following a
> nasal consonant would also do it when preceding a nasal consonant, so
> you'd simply describe the rule as "nasalize vowels when a nasal
> consonant exists in the same syllable". As I understand it, the
> combination onset + nucleus simply doesn't pattern distinctly from the
> whole unit "syllable", so that there's no need to create a special term.
So a vowel followed by a nasal always becomes nasalized? Why is it not
possible to build allophones only depending on the onset?
--
Alexandre Lang
allexpro@eml.cc
--
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